HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe, piercing abdominal pain and an elevated serum amylase. Which additional information is the client most likely to report to the nurse?
- A. Pain radiates to the back
- B. Nausea and vomiting without relief
- C. Abdominal pain decreases when lying supine
- D. Abdominal pain is worse after eating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In acute pancreatitis, abdominal pain typically worsens after eating due to the stimulation of the pancreas to release enzymes that irritate the inflamed tissues. Pain relief when lying supine is uncommon and usually exacerbates discomfort. While nausea and vomiting are common symptoms, they are not as indicative of changes in pain intensity. Pain radiating to the back is characteristic but does not specifically relate to exacerbation post-eating.
2. The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow-up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant?
- A. Has had a change in respiratory rate with an increase of 2 breaths
- B. Has had a change in heart rate with an increase of 10 beats
- C. Was minimally responsive to voice and touch
- D. Has had a blood pressure change with a drop of 8 mmHg systolic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A change in responsiveness, as indicated by being minimally responsive to voice and touch, suggests a potential acute issue that requires immediate nursing assessment and intervention rather than delegation. Changes in vital signs (choices A, B, D) can be important but do not always indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention compared to a change in responsiveness.
3. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
- C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
- D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.
4. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
5. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?
- A. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels.
- B. Check the client’s urine output hourly.
- C. Assess the client’s skin turgor regularly.
- D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.
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