Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

2. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.

3. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parents of a newborn about feeding skills. Which of the following is not an infant's feeding skill?

• A. Pushes solid objects from mouth
• B. Eats foods that are higher in fat
• C. Begins experimenting with a spoon
• D. Eats pieces of soft, cooked food

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When discussing infant feeding skills, it is important to note that eating foods higher in fat is not considered a specific feeding skill for newborns. The typical progression of feeding skills includes pushing solid objects from the mouth, eating pieces of soft, cooked food, drinking from a cup held by another person, and experimenting with a spoon. Choices A, C, and D correspond to the expected developmental sequence of feeding skills for infants, making them incorrect answers in this context.

4. The nurse is about to assess a 6-month-old child with nonorganic failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would expect the baby to be

• A. Irritable and 'colicky' with no attempts to pull to standing
• B. Alert, laughing, and playing with a rattle, sitting with support
• C. Skin color dusky with poor skin turgor over the abdomen
• D. Pale, thin arms and legs, uninterested in surroundings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive often appears pale, thin, and uninterested in their surroundings. Choice A is incorrect as 'irritable and colicky with no attempts to pull to standing' is more indicative of other conditions like colic. Choice B is incorrect as a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive is unlikely to be alert, laughing, and playing, as they would typically present with signs of failure to thrive. Choice C is incorrect as dusky skin color and poor skin turgor are not typical findings in a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive.

5. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

• A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
• B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
• D. Monitoring the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

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