a client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram eeg which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepa
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.

2. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

4. A client with diabetes is being educated about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of their calories. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In diabetes management, complex carbohydrates should constitute the largest portion of the diet as they help in maintaining steady energy levels and managing blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because a high-fat diet can lead to complications in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as protein, while important, should not be the main source of calories for a diabetic individual.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.

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