HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
- A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
- B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
- C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
- D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.
2. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?
- A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
- B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
- C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
- D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.
3. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
4. A nurse at a provider's office is reinforcing teaching with a client who is being treated with chemotherapy and is losing weight. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to increase the client's caloric intake? (Select one that doesn't apply).
- A. Top yogurt with granola.
- B. Use honey on toast.
- C. Use milk instead of water in recipes.
- D. Increase fluids during meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Increasing fluids during meals does not directly contribute to increasing caloric intake. Topping yogurt with granola, using honey on toast, and using milk instead of water in recipes are effective ways to boost caloric intake. While adequate fluid intake is important for hydration and overall health, it does not address the specific need to increase caloric intake in this scenario.
5. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
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