HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
- A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
- B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
- C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
- D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.
2. A nurse is assisting an adolescent client in the selection of complementary protein sources on the lunch menu. The client is a vegetarian who eats milk products but does not like beans. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly with enriched bread
- B. Baked potato with sour cream
- C. Bagel with cream cheese
- D. Fruit salad and carrot sticks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peanut butter and enriched bread provide complementary proteins, which are important for a vegetarian diet. Peanut butter is a good source of protein and when paired with enriched bread, it forms a complete protein source. Choice B, baked potato with sour cream, lacks complete protein. Choice C, bagel with cream cheese, also does not provide a complete protein source. Choice D, fruit salad and carrot sticks, do not contain sufficient protein to serve as a main protein source for a vegetarian diet.
3. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
- A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
- B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
- D. Monitoring the client's intake and output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
4. A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?
- A. Tea
- B. Sodium
- C. Water
- D. Protein
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.
5. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
- B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
- C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
- D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.
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