Nursing Elites

1. A client presses the call bell and requests pain medication for a severe headache. To assess the quality of the client's pain, which approach should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Wong-Baker Faces pain rating scale
• B. Assess vital signs to gauge pain severity
• C. Ask the client to describe the pain
• D. Offer a 1-10 pain scale

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking the client to describe the pain is the most appropriate approach to assess the quality of pain. It provides valuable qualitative information that aids in understanding the nature, cause, and potential management strategies for the headache. While pain rating scales like the Wong-Baker Faces scale and using vital signs can help quantify pain severity, they do not offer specific descriptive details that can give insights into the type and characteristics of the pain experienced by the client.

2. The nurse is providing teaching to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Eat large meals to decrease acid production
• B. Avoid lying down immediately after eating
• C. Limit fluid intake with meals
• D. Drink carbonated beverages to aid digestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid lying down immediately after eating. This helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, which can worsen symptoms. Eating large meals can actually increase acid production and exacerbate GERD. Limiting fluid intake with meals may be beneficial for some individuals, but it is not a key instruction for managing GERD. Drinking carbonated beverages can trigger reflux symptoms and should be avoided by individuals with GERD.

3. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

• A. Decreased liver enzymes.
• B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
• C. High bilirubin levels.
• D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.

5. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage discussion about feelings of limb loss.
• B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
• C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
• D. Offer assistance to move to a quiet room to relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.

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