HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?
- A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
- B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
- C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
- D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.
2. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?
- A. The client has been taking multiple medications
- B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
- C. The client's vital signs are stable
- D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.
3. A client undergoing chemotherapy reports extreme fatigue. What should the nurse recommend to manage this symptom?
- A. Increase the dose of chemotherapy.
- B. Rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet.
- C. Perform light physical activity to reduce fatigue.
- D. Consider delaying the chemotherapy treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for managing chemotherapy-induced fatigue is to advise the client to rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet. Increasing the dose of chemotherapy (Choice A) would exacerbate the fatigue and other side effects. While light physical activity (Choice C) can be beneficial, extreme fatigue may require more rest initially. Delaying chemotherapy treatment (Choice D) should only be considered after consultation with the healthcare provider, as timely treatment is usually crucial in cancer care.
4. A client with cirrhosis and ascites asks about fluid restriction. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Increase the client's fluid intake gradually.
- B. Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.
- C. Explain the importance of following a low-sodium diet.
- D. Increase dietary protein to reduce fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.' In clients with cirrhosis and ascites, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen symptoms of liver failure. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake would exacerbate the issue of fluid overload. Option C, while important, is not the best initial response to the client's question about fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as increasing dietary protein does not directly address fluid restriction in clients with cirrhosis and ascites.
5. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?
- A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
- B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
- C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
- D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.
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