HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
- B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
- C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
- D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.
3. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client with pneumonia who has a fever of 101.5°F
- B. Client who underwent knee surgery and needs dressing change
- C. Client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus experiencing abdominal rigidity
- D. Client with diabetes requesting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Abdominal rigidity in a client with a bowel obstruction could indicate peritonitis, a serious complication requiring immediate attention. Volvulus, a twisting of the intestine, can lead to bowel ischemia and necrosis. Clients with pneumonia (choice A) may need assessment and treatment for infection, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as a bowel obstruction. A client who underwent knee surgery (choice B) needing a dressing change can typically wait for assessment compared to a potential surgical emergency. Similarly, a client with diabetes requesting insulin (choice D) may require attention to maintain blood glucose levels, but it is not as urgent as a suspected bowel obstruction with possible peritonitis.
4. A client is newly diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. What information should the nurse provide during medication teaching?
- A. Take antacids regularly to manage symptoms.
- B. Avoid spicy foods and alcohol.
- C. Ensure proper administration of antibiotics.
- D. Stop all food intake until symptoms subside.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with duodenal ulcers should avoid spicy foods and alcohol as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Choice A is incorrect because while antacids may help with symptoms, they are not the primary focus of medication teaching for duodenal ulcers. Choice C is not directly related to medication teaching for duodenal ulcers unless antibiotics are specifically prescribed. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all food intake is not recommended and can lead to other complications.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
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