HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
2. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right AKA (above-the-knee amputation) for a severe traumatic injury. He is in the commons room and anxiously calls out to the nurse, stating that his 'right foot is aching.' The nurse offers reassurance and support. Which additional intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Teach the client distraction techniques
- B. Provide a soft blanket to ease discomfort
- C. Administer prescribed pain medication
- D. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's report of pain in a missing limb is consistent with phantom limb pain, which can be distressing. Encouraging the client to discuss his feelings helps address the emotional and psychological aspects of the amputation and supports his overall recovery. Teaching distraction techniques (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying emotional distress. Providing a soft blanket (choice B) is not the priority when dealing with phantom limb pain. Administering pain medication (choice C) may not effectively manage phantom limb pain as it is more related to central nervous system changes rather than tissue damage.
3. A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer insulin per sliding scale protocol.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids.
- D. Check the client's skin for signs of bruising.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.
4. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.
5. When asking an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to assist a 69-year-old surgical client to ambulate for the first time, which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Have the client sit on the side of the bed for at least 2 minutes before helping him stand.
- B. If the client is dizzy on standing, ask him to take some deep breaths.
- C. Assist the client to the bathroom at least twice on this shift.
- D. After you assist him to the chair, let me know how he feels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allowing the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing helps prevent dizziness and falls, especially during their first ambulation post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client to take deep breaths when feeling dizzy may not address the underlying cause of the dizziness. Choice C is incorrect as it is unrelated to the task of assisting the client to ambulate for the first time. Choice D is incorrect because knowing how the client feels after sitting in the chair does not address the important step of assisting the client to stand up for the first time.
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