Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

2. A client presents to the emergency room with an acute asthma attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
• D. Provide emotional support to reduce anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as prescribed. During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways quickly to help the client breathe more easily. Oxygen may be needed but bronchodilators take precedence as they directly target bronchoconstriction. Chest physiotherapy is not indicated in the acute phase of asthma and may exacerbate the condition. While emotional support is important, addressing the airway obstruction takes precedence in this situation.

3. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks, delegated to a UAP, indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process?

• A. Assist a client post cerebral vascular accident to ambulate
• B. Feed a 2-year-old in balanced skeletal traction
• C. Care for a client with discharge orders
• D. Collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Caring for a client with discharge orders involves tasks that require critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are beyond the scope of a UAP. Delegating this task to a UAP can compromise patient safety and outcomes. The correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate tasks to delegate to a UAP based on their training and scope of practice. Assisting a client to ambulate, feeding a pediatric patient in traction, and collecting a sputum specimen are tasks that can be safely performed by a UAP under appropriate supervision.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with increased swelling and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• D. Reposition the client to improve lung expansion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a diuretic as prescribed. In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing increased swelling and shortness of breath, the priority action is to address fluid retention. Administering a diuretic helps reduce fluid overload, alleviate symptoms, and prevent complications associated with fluid buildup. Option A is not the priority in this situation as addressing fluid retention takes precedence over providing oxygen. While monitoring vital signs is important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of symptoms. Repositioning the client may help with comfort but does not directly address the fluid overload seen in chronic kidney disease.

5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

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