HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A mother reports that she has been applying triple antibiotic ointment for her son's athlete's foot for two days with no improvement. What should the nurse instruct?
- A. Continue using the ointment and keep the area clean.
- B. Stop using the ointment and encourage the feet to be dried completely.
- C. Apply a different antifungal medication instead.
- D. Reapply the ointment twice a day for a longer period.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Antibiotic ointment is ineffective against athlete's foot, which is a fungal infection. The nurse should instruct the mother to stop using the ointment and ensure the feet are dried properly, as moisture exacerbates fungal infections. Applying a different antifungal medication is a valid option, but addressing the moisture issue by drying the feet completely is the immediate priority. Continuing to use the antibiotic ointment or reapplying it for a longer period will not treat the fungal infection effectively.
2. When assessing a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who reports taking a handful of medications, what information is most important to obtain?
- A. What drugs the client used in the suicide attempt.
- B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder.
- C. Whether the client has attempted suicide before.
- D. Which family member has the suicide note.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain information on what drugs the client used in the suicide attempt. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the overdose, potential drug interactions, and determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choice B is not as urgent as identifying the drugs taken during the suicide attempt. Choice C, while important, is not as immediately critical as knowing the specific medications involved. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate medical needs of the client.
3. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client’s potassium levels.
- C. Instruct the client to increase their salt intake.
- D. Discontinue the furosemide.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.
4. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?
- A. A migraine headache
- B. An infection from the puncture site
- C. Low blood sugar
- D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.
5. What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?
- A. Pancakes with syrup and orange juice
- B. Bagel with jelly and skim milk
- C. Eggs with sausage and whole milk
- D. French toast with butter and syrup
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.
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