Nursing Elites

1. When asking an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to assist a 69-year-old surgical client to ambulate for the first time, which statement by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Have the client sit on the side of the bed for at least 2 minutes before helping him stand.
• B. If the client is dizzy on standing, ask him to take some deep breaths.
• C. Assist the client to the bathroom at least twice on this shift.
• D. After you assist him to the chair, let me know how he feels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allowing the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing helps prevent dizziness and falls, especially during their first ambulation post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client to take deep breaths when feeling dizzy may not address the underlying cause of the dizziness. Choice C is incorrect as it is unrelated to the task of assisting the client to ambulate for the first time. Choice D is incorrect because knowing how the client feels after sitting in the chair does not address the important step of assisting the client to stand up for the first time.

2. When a client is suspected of having a stroke, what is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).
• B. Perform a neurological assessment.
• C. Position the client in a supine position.
• D. Check the client's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a neurological assessment. When a stroke is suspected, the priority action is to assess the client neurologically to determine the extent of brain injury and identify any immediate risks, such as impaired airway, speech deficits, or loss of motor function. This assessment helps in early recognition of signs that are essential for timely intervention and guides further treatment, such as administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), if appropriate. Positioning the client in a supine position or checking the blood glucose level can be important but not the priority when a stroke is suspected.

3. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Elevated WBC count
• C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT).
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

5. A 4-year-old child is returned to the room following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Coughing
• C. Slow breathing
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient, frequent swallowing is a crucial assessment that requires immediate attention by the nurse. Frequent swallowing can indicate bleeding, a complication that needs urgent intervention. Coughing may be expected due to irritation from the surgery but is not as concerning as potential bleeding. Slow breathing and tachycardia are not typically immediate concerns following this type of surgery.

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