HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an infected foot ulcer. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain a wound culture for testing.
- B. Administer prescribed IV antibiotics.
- C. Elevate the affected foot to reduce swelling.
- D. Consult the wound care nurse for assessment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering prescribed IV antibiotics is the most crucial intervention in managing an infected foot ulcer in a client with diabetes mellitus. Antibiotics help combat the infection and prevent its spread systemically, which is vital in diabetic clients to prevent serious complications like sepsis. While obtaining a wound culture (Choice A) may provide valuable information for targeted antibiotic therapy, administering antibiotics promptly takes precedence to prevent the infection from worsening. Elevating the affected foot (Choice C) can help reduce swelling but is not as urgent as administering antibiotics. Consulting the wound care nurse (Choice D) may be beneficial for long-term wound management but does not address the immediate need to control the infection.
2. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
- B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.
3. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hemoglobin level
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Prothrombin time (PT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.
4. What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?
- A. Pancakes with syrup and orange juice
- B. Bagel with jelly and skim milk
- C. Eggs with sausage and whole milk
- D. French toast with butter and syrup
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.
5. An adolescent client with intellectual disability refuses oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks.
- B. Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task.
- C. Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks.
- D. Preferred activities or privileges for compliance.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best reinforcement for the nurse to implement is preferred activities or privileges for compliance. Positive reinforcement with privileges is effective in encouraging behavior change in adolescents, including those with intellectual disabilities. Choice A (Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks) may not be suitable as it involves providing a sugary reward, which contradicts the goal of oral hygiene. Choice B (Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task) could be effective but may not be as motivating as preferred activities or privileges. Choice C (Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks) focuses on negative reinforcement, which is not as effective as positive reinforcement in behavior modification.
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