HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Check the client's blood pressure.
- B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
- C. Assess the client's neurological status.
- D. Monitor the client's intake and output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.
2. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
3. A scrub nurse preparing for the first surgery of the day asks if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate. What should the circulating nurse advise?
- A. Proceed with surgery preparation
- B. Extend scrub time to 5 minutes
- C. Use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
- D. Scrub time depends on the type of surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The circulating nurse should advise the scrub nurse to extend the hand scrub to 5 minutes for thorough preparation, especially for the first surgery of the day. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need for a longer scrub time. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not a substitute for a thorough surgical hand scrub. Choice D is incorrect as while scrub time may vary based on the surgery, for the first surgery of the day, a longer scrub time is recommended as a standard practice.
4. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- D. Check the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.
5. A mother reports that she has been applying triple antibiotic ointment for her son's athlete's foot for two days with no improvement. What should the nurse instruct?
- A. Continue using the ointment and keep the area clean.
- B. Stop using the ointment and encourage the feet to be dried completely.
- C. Apply a different antifungal medication instead.
- D. Reapply the ointment twice a day for a longer period.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Antibiotic ointment is ineffective against athlete's foot, which is a fungal infection. The nurse should instruct the mother to stop using the ointment and ensure the feet are dried properly, as moisture exacerbates fungal infections. Applying a different antifungal medication is a valid option, but addressing the moisture issue by drying the feet completely is the immediate priority. Continuing to use the antibiotic ointment or reapplying it for a longer period will not treat the fungal infection effectively.
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