Nursing Elites

1. A client tells the nurse, 'I have something very important to tell you if you promise not to tell.' The best response by the nurse is

• A. I must document and report any information.
• B. I can't make such a promise.
• C. That depends on what you tell me.
• D. I must report everything to the treatment team.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse cannot promise confidentiality in this context. It is essential to prioritize the safety and well-being of the client and others. Certain information, such as harm to oneself or others, must be reported to ensure appropriate interventions are taken. Choice A is incorrect because while documentation is important, confidentiality cannot be guaranteed in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not make promises that may conflict with their professional responsibilities. Choice D is incorrect as reporting everything to the treatment team without discretion may breach client confidentiality.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Suction the client's airway.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is the nurse's first action when a client with COPD presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen saturation in patients with COPD and respiratory distress. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to improve oxygenation takes priority. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also assist with breathing but is not the initial action in this scenario. Suctioning the airway is not indicated unless there are secretions obstructing the airway, which is not mentioned in the scenario.

3. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?

• A. 83
• B. 85
• C. 87
• D. 90

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.

4. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Leave the pillows in place and document the action
• B. Inform the UAP that the pillows should be removed immediately
• C. Request that the pillows be replaced with firm padding
• D. Ensure that the side rails are padded and leave the pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the UAP that the pillows should be removed immediately. Soft pillows along the side rails do not provide sufficient protection during a seizure. The pillows could potentially increase the risk of injury, such as hitting the head or limbs against the hard side rails. Requesting firm padding or ensuring that the side rails are padded are not as effective as removing the pillows to prevent harm to the client. Leaving the pillows in place without addressing the potential risks would not be in the best interest of the client's safety.

5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

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