HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Assess the client's understanding of the procedure
- B. Monitor the client's compliance with NPO status
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Ensure the client's consent form is signed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.
2. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
- A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
- B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
- C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.
3. A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing several side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Somnambulism
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Vivid dreams
- D. Daytime sleepiness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Somnambulism' (sleepwalking). Somnambulism is a potentially dangerous side effect that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Sleepwalking can pose risks to the individual's safety and may indicate a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Dry mouth (choice B), vivid dreams (choice C), and daytime sleepiness (choice D) are common side effects of ramelteon and are generally not considered as urgent or serious as somnambulism. While these side effects can impact the client's quality of life, they are not typically associated with immediate safety concerns.
4. During a neurologic assessment of a client with a suspected stroke, which finding is most concerning?
- A. Unilateral facial droop
- B. Slurred speech
- C. Weakness in one arm
- D. Sudden loss of consciousness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sudden loss of consciousness in a client with a suspected stroke is the most concerning finding as it indicates a more severe neurological event, such as brain stem involvement or hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention. While unilateral facial droop, slurred speech, and weakness in one arm are all common signs of a stroke, sudden loss of consciousness signifies a critical condition that needs urgent attention and evaluation to prevent further complications.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement
- B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
- C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.
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