Nursing Elites

1. A client with peripheral vascular disease reports leg pain while walking. What intervention is most effective for the nurse to recommend?

• A. Recommend elevating the legs above the heart.
• B. Encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually.
• C. Encourage the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods.
• D. Instruct the client to use warm compresses for pain relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually. This intervention is effective because gradual increases in walking distance promote circulation, improve oxygen delivery to tissues, and help reduce leg pain caused by peripheral vascular disease. Elevating the legs above the heart (Choice A) may be beneficial in other conditions like venous insufficiency but not specifically for peripheral vascular disease. Encouraging the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods (Choice C) can help prevent blood pooling but does not directly address the walking-induced leg pain. Instructing the client to use warm compresses for pain relief (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying circulation issues associated with peripheral vascular disease.

2. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

3. The nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. After administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Heart rate
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Apnea episodes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Surfactant therapy is used to improve lung function and gas exchange in premature infants with respiratory distress. Monitoring arterial blood gases is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and ensure adequate oxygenation. While monitoring heart rate is important in neonatal care, assessing arterial blood gases will provide direct information regarding the infant's oxygenation status post-surfactant administration. Bowel sounds are not directly related to the respiratory distress symptoms described, and monitoring apnea episodes, although important in preterm infants, is not the most crucial assessment immediately following surfactant administration.

4. A client undergoing chemotherapy reports extreme fatigue. What should the nurse recommend to manage this symptom?

• A. Increase the dose of chemotherapy.
• B. Rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet.
• C. Perform light physical activity to reduce fatigue.
• D. Consider delaying the chemotherapy treatment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for managing chemotherapy-induced fatigue is to advise the client to rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet. Increasing the dose of chemotherapy (Choice A) would exacerbate the fatigue and other side effects. While light physical activity (Choice C) can be beneficial, extreme fatigue may require more rest initially. Delaying chemotherapy treatment (Choice D) should only be considered after consultation with the healthcare provider, as timely treatment is usually crucial in cancer care.

5. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?

• A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
• B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.

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