Nursing Elites

1. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Elevated WBC count
• C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.

2. After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?

• A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
• B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
• C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
• D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.

3. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assess the client's temperature.
• B. Place a mask on the client.
• C. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
• D. Determine the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-op after a hip replacement. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate to prevent dislocation of the hip?

• A. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
• B. Use an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
• C. Encourage the client to cross their legs while sitting.
• D. Encourage the client to sit upright for long periods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using an abduction pillow between the client's legs is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent dislocation after hip replacement surgery. An abduction pillow helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the hip from dislocating. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice A) or encouraging them to sit upright for long periods (Choice D) may not provide the necessary support and stability needed to prevent hip dislocation. Encouraging the client to cross their legs while sitting (Choice C) can increase the risk of hip dislocation and should be avoided.

5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

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