a client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 65 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

2. A client with congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What symptom indicates digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects are signs of digoxin toxicity, which can be life-threatening. These symptoms indicate an overdose of digoxin, requiring immediate medical attention. Muscle weakness and fatigue (Choice A) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not indicative of digoxin toxicity either. Nausea and vomiting (Choice C) are common side effects of digoxin but are not specific signs of toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects.

3. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

5. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

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