a client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 65 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

2. A client with chronic liver disease develops jaundice. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease developing jaundice, the most important assessment the nurse should perform is to monitor the client’s urine output closely. Jaundice can indicate worsening liver function, so monitoring urine output helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, which are critical in chronic liver disease. Assessing the client’s skin for lesions or sores (Choice A) may be relevant for dermatological conditions but is not the priority in this case. Monitoring liver function tests (Choice B) is important but may not provide immediate information on the client’s current status. Assessing for changes in mental status and behavior (Choice C) is important for detecting hepatic encephalopathy but does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid balance and kidney function in the presence of jaundice.

3. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. While calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are important in various conditions and treatments, they are not the primary electrolyte affected by furosemide.

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