a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure what action should the nurse take first
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

2. After repositioning an immobile client, the nurse observes an area of hyperemia. What action should the nurse take to assess for blanching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to assess for blanching in an area of hyperemia is to apply light pressure over the area. Blanching is the temporary whitening of the skin when pressure is applied and then released, indicating that the blood flow is returning to the area. Applying light pressure helps in determining if the hyperemic area blanches, ensuring that blood flow is adequate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because documenting findings, applying heat, or using cold compresses are not appropriate actions for assessing blanching in an area of hyperemia.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

4. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

Similar Questions

Which self-care measure is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care of a client recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Recent lab tests show decreased serum magnesium. What nursing action is most important?
An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?
The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action is most important for the nurse to take before starting the transfusion?
An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses