HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. Which self-care measure is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care of a client recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
- A. Maintaining a low-sugar diet
- B. Foot care
- C. Blood glucose monitoring
- D. Daily exercise
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Blood glucose monitoring is crucial for managing diabetes effectively. By monitoring blood sugar levels, individuals can understand how their lifestyle choices, medications, and diet affect their glucose levels. This information helps in making necessary adjustments to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. While maintaining a low-sugar diet, foot care, and daily exercise are all important aspects of managing diabetes, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence as it provides real-time data for informed decision-making.
2. Which of the following statements reflects appropriate teaching to prevent injury in a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Use heat applications to relieve swelling and stiffness.
- B. Take warm showers before activity.
- C. Use cold packs to relieve joint pain.
- D. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using cold packs to relieve joint pain is appropriate for clients with rheumatoid arthritis as cold therapy is more effective at reducing inflammation and pain in these conditions. Heat applications may exacerbate the symptoms by increasing swelling. Taking warm showers before activity may provide comfort but does not directly address joint pain or prevent injury. While anti-inflammatory medications are commonly prescribed, they are not directly related to preventing injury in clients with rheumatoid arthritis.
3. A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
- B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
- D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.
4. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.
5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
- C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
- D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access