a client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone what electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.

3. Following a cardiac catheterization and placement of a stent in the right coronary artery, the nurse administers prasugrel, a platelet inhibitor, to the client. To monitor for adverse effects from the medication, which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's care plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prasugrel is a platelet inhibitor, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding, particularly at the catheterization site and in other areas, is the most important assessment following administration of the drug. Checking platelet count and observing urine color are relevant but not as immediate. Reviewing liver function tests is not directly related to the adverse effects of prasugrel.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is the nurse's first action when a client with COPD presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen saturation in patients with COPD and respiratory distress. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to improve oxygenation takes priority. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also assist with breathing but is not the initial action in this scenario. Suctioning the airway is not indicated unless there are secretions obstructing the airway, which is not mentioned in the scenario.

5. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.

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