Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor potassium levels.
• B. Monitor sodium levels.
• C. Monitor calcium levels.
• D. Monitor magnesium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. A client admitted to the ICU with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?

• A. Evaluate the client's swallowing ability.
• B. Reorient the client frequently.
• C. Patch one eye to minimize confusion.
• D. Perform range of motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's swallowing ability. Osmotic demyelination can cause dysphagia, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing swallowing function is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client frequently (Choice B) is more suitable for confusion related to conditions like delirium. Patching one eye (Choice C) is a technique used for diplopia or double vision, not specifically indicated for osmotic demyelination. Performing range of motion exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for preventing complications of immobility but is not the priority intervention for osmotic demyelination.

3. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
• B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
• C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
• D. Administer a stronger medication as requested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.

4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Coat the lining of the stomach
• B. Neutralize stomach acid
• C. Promote gastric motility
• D. Reduce gastric acid secretion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing the production of gastric acid in the stomach. This helps in managing GERD by decreasing the acidity levels in the stomach. Choice A is incorrect because omeprazole does not coat the lining of the stomach. Choice B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize stomach acid but rather reduces its production. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole does not promote gastric motility; instead, it acts on acid secretion.

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

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