Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor potassium levels.
• B. Monitor sodium levels.
• C. Monitor calcium levels.
• D. Monitor magnesium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. The nurse is developing an educational program for older clients discharged with new antihypertensive medications. The nurse should ensure that the education materials include which characteristics?

• A. Uses pictures to help illustrate complex ideas
• B. Contains a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms
• C. Uses common words with few syllables
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' When developing educational materials for older clients with new antihypertensive medications, it is essential to include characteristics such as using pictures to illustrate complex ideas, providing a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms, and using common words with few syllables. These features help enhance understanding and medication adherence, especially for older adults who may have challenges with health literacy. Choices A, B, and C collectively address the need for simplicity, visual support, and clarification of terms in educational materials, making them crucial for effective patient education.

3. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
• B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

4. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

• A. Ensure early ambulation
• B. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• C. Maintain strict intake and output
• D. Monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

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