a client with diabetic ketoacidosis dka is receiving an insulin infusion which finding indicates that the treatment is effective
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

2. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes is not a suitable candidate for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) due to their inability to effectively manage the system. In the context of terminal cancer, it is crucial for the patient to be able to utilize the PCA system appropriately to manage pain effectively. Preschoolers may not have the cognitive ability or understanding to operate a PCA pump compared to the other clients. Choices A, B, and C present clients with conditions that do not inherently impede their ability to use a PCA pump effectively.

3. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.

4. A client is admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for a CT scan. A CT scan is essential in confirming the presence of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and guiding further treatment. Administering anticoagulant therapy (Choice A) is important in the management of PE, but it is not the priority intervention in this case. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) is beneficial for optimizing oxygenation but is not the priority intervention when a PE is suspected. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important, but obtaining a definitive diagnosis through a CT scan takes precedence in this situation.

5. An S3 heart sound is auscultated in a client in her third trimester of pregnancy. What intervention should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An S3 heart sound is often a normal finding in pregnant women due to increased blood volume and cardiac output. The nurse should document the finding as part of the routine assessment unless accompanied by other abnormal symptoms. Performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice A) is unnecessary for a normal S3 heart sound in pregnancy. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is premature and may lead to unnecessary interventions. Assessing for signs of heart failure (Choice D) is not indicated as an isolated S3 heart sound is typically benign in pregnancy.

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