HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with increased swelling and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- D. Reposition the client to improve lung expansion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a diuretic as prescribed. In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing increased swelling and shortness of breath, the priority action is to address fluid retention. Administering a diuretic helps reduce fluid overload, alleviate symptoms, and prevent complications associated with fluid buildup. Option A is not the priority in this situation as addressing fluid retention takes precedence over providing oxygen. While monitoring vital signs is important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of symptoms. Repositioning the client may help with comfort but does not directly address the fluid overload seen in chronic kidney disease.
2. The nurse is developing an educational program for older clients discharged with new antihypertensive medications. The nurse should ensure that the education materials include which characteristics?
- A. Uses pictures to help illustrate complex ideas
- B. Contains a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms
- C. Uses common words with few syllables
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' When developing educational materials for older clients with new antihypertensive medications, it is essential to include characteristics such as using pictures to illustrate complex ideas, providing a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms, and using common words with few syllables. These features help enhance understanding and medication adherence, especially for older adults who may have challenges with health literacy. Choices A, B, and C collectively address the need for simplicity, visual support, and clarification of terms in educational materials, making them crucial for effective patient education.
3. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
4. An adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms. What action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery?
- A. Check the client's most recent electrolyte levels.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of muscle relaxant.
- C. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
- D. Encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement while awaiting surgery for a client with muscle spasms due to a broken femur is to encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension. Dehydration can exacerbate muscle spasms, so increasing fluid intake can help alleviate them. Checking electrolyte levels may not directly address muscle spasms in this situation. Administering a muscle relaxant should be based on a healthcare provider's prescription, and traction weight adjustments should only be made by the provider overseeing the client's care.
5. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
- B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
- C. Administer platelet transfusion.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.
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