HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with increased swelling and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- D. Reposition the client to improve lung expansion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a diuretic as prescribed. In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing increased swelling and shortness of breath, the priority action is to address fluid retention. Administering a diuretic helps reduce fluid overload, alleviate symptoms, and prevent complications associated with fluid buildup. Option A is not the priority in this situation as addressing fluid retention takes precedence over providing oxygen. While monitoring vital signs is important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of symptoms. Repositioning the client may help with comfort but does not directly address the fluid overload seen in chronic kidney disease.
2. A client is experiencing acute bronchospasm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol.
- B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- C. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
- D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol. In acute bronchospasm, the priority intervention is to deliver a bronchodilator like albuterol to open the airways and improve breathing. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline (Choice B) may be necessary but not the priority in this situation. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention for bronchospasm. Positioning the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but is not the priority over administering a bronchodilator.
3. A scrub nurse preparing for the first surgery of the day asks if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate. What should the circulating nurse advise?
- A. Proceed with surgery preparation
- B. Extend scrub time to 5 minutes
- C. Use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
- D. Scrub time depends on the type of surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The circulating nurse should advise the scrub nurse to extend the hand scrub to 5 minutes for thorough preparation, especially for the first surgery of the day. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need for a longer scrub time. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not a substitute for a thorough surgical hand scrub. Choice D is incorrect as while scrub time may vary based on the surgery, for the first surgery of the day, a longer scrub time is recommended as a standard practice.
4. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests
- B. Assign the nurse requested by the client to avoid further conflict
- C. Tell the client that he can request a different nurse if unhappy
- D. Explain the situation calmly and reinforce the rules regarding nurse assignments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.
5. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
- B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
- C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
- D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access