HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Recent lab tests show decreased serum magnesium. What nursing action is most important?
- A. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor.
- B. Check for visual difficulties.
- C. Assess for hip and hand joint pain.
- D. Note the most recent hemoglobin level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal cardiac rhythms, particularly in patients with cardiac conditions. Abnormal levels can lead to arrhythmias, which is why continuous monitoring of the heart's electrical activity is important. Magnesium's effect on neuromuscular and cardiac function makes it essential to monitor its levels, and any discrepancies can impact treatment decisions. Checking for visual difficulties (choice B) may be important in MG but is not the priority in the context of decreased serum magnesium. Assessing for hip and hand joint pain (choice C) is not directly related to the issue of decreased serum magnesium. Noting the most recent hemoglobin level (choice D) is not the priority in this situation compared to monitoring the cardiac rhythm due to low magnesium levels.
2. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?
- A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.
- B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.
- C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.
- D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with advanced liver disease who is experiencing ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's fluid volume?
- A. Increase the client's sodium intake
- B. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
- C. Place the client in a supine position
- D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering a diuretic as prescribed is the most appropriate intervention to manage fluid volume in a client with ascites due to advanced liver disease. Diuretics help reduce fluid accumulation in the body, including the abdominal cavity where ascites occurs. Increasing sodium intake would worsen fluid retention, and encouraging more fluid intake can exacerbate ascites. Placing the client in a supine position does not directly address the fluid volume issue associated with ascites.
4. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?
- A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
- B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
- C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
- D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.
5. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
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