a client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements what teaching should the nurse provide
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

2. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.

3. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.

4. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

5. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

Similar Questions

A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving intravenous fluids and pain medication. What is the priority assessment for this client?
At 42-weeks gestation, a client refuses induction and desires a natural delivery. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
When a client is suspected of having a stroke, what is the nurse's priority action?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses