Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

• A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
• B. Missed a dose of insulin
• C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
• D. Overexerted during exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

2. The nurse administers an antibiotic for a respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Platelet count and red blood cell count.
• B. White blood cell count and sputum culture.
• C. Hemoglobin A1c and glucose tolerance test.
• D. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: White blood cell count and sputum culture. Monitoring white blood cell count and sputum cultures is essential to assess the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating the respiratory tract infection. Changes in white blood cell count can indicate the body's response to infection, while sputum cultures help determine if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogens causing the infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because platelet count, red blood cell count, hemoglobin A1c, glucose tolerance test, arterial blood gases, and serum electrolytes are not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of an antibiotic in treating a respiratory tract infection.

3. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?

• A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
• B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
• C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
• D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.

4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
• C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Administer oxygen therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.

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