HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?
- A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.
- B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.
- C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.
- D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- B. Assess for gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or diarrhea.
- C. Monitor for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat.
- D. Administer DMARDs with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.
3. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
- B. Obtain a peak flow reading
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Administer oxygen therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Encourage a diet low in carbohydrates and fats.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach and kale.
- C. Increase salt intake to prevent dehydration.
- D. Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.
5. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?
- A. Presence of viral symptoms
- B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
- C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
- D. History of opportunistic infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.
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