HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?
- A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.
- B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.
- C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.
- D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.
2. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?
- A. A migraine headache
- B. An infection from the puncture site
- C. Low blood sugar
- D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.
3. Before a client with renal failure undergoes hemodialysis, what should the nurse assess?
- A. Check the client's potassium levels
- B. Review the client's medication list
- C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses
- D. Monitor the client's urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's potassium levels. Potassium levels are crucial to assess before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure because hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in these patients. Hemodialysis aims to remove excess potassium from the blood, making it essential to monitor potassium levels to determine the need for appropriate interventions. Reviewing the client's medication list (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concerns before hemodialysis. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice C) and monitoring urine output (Choice D) are important aspects of nursing assessment but are not as directly related to the specific preparation needed before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure.
4. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure that the restraint is snug against the client’s wrist.
- B. Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.
- C. Double knot the restraint to ensure safety.
- D. Leave the restraint in place and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports dizziness
- B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
- C. Client experiences mild nausea
- D. Client reports dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.
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