Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Maintain a consistent intake of leafy green vegetables
• B. Use an electric razor when shaving
• C. Monitor blood pressure daily
• D. Avoid eating bananas and oranges

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients on warfarin are at increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant effects. Using an electric razor reduces the risk of cuts and bleeding, which is an important safety precaution. While leafy greens should not be avoided, their intake should be consistent to maintain a stable level of vitamin K in the body. Monitoring blood pressure daily is important for other conditions but not directly related to warfarin therapy. Avoiding bananas and oranges is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin.

2. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

3. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
• B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
• D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

4. A client with a prescription for DNR begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

• A. Inform the healthcare provider
• B. Determine the client's need for pain medication
• C. Begin comfort measures
• D. Ensure all life-saving equipment is removed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to determine the client's need for pain medication. Ensuring that the client is comfortable and free from pain is crucial in end-of-life care, especially for a client with a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order. This action prioritizes the client's comfort and dignity in their final moments. While informing the healthcare provider and beginning comfort measures are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence as the immediate priority. Removing life-saving equipment is not appropriate at this stage as it goes against the client's wishes stated in the DNR order.

5. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Bibasilar crackles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.

Similar Questions