HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Maintain a consistent intake of leafy green vegetables
- B. Use an electric razor when shaving
- C. Monitor blood pressure daily
- D. Avoid eating bananas and oranges
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients on warfarin are at increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant effects. Using an electric razor reduces the risk of cuts and bleeding, which is an important safety precaution. While leafy greens should not be avoided, their intake should be consistent to maintain a stable level of vitamin K in the body. Monitoring blood pressure daily is important for other conditions but not directly related to warfarin therapy. Avoiding bananas and oranges is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin.
2. A client's chest tube insertion site has crepitus (crackling sensation) upon palpation. What is the nurse's next step?
- A. Apply a pressure dressing to the chest tube site.
- B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
- C. Assess the client for allergies to cleaning agents.
- D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to measure the area of crepitus. Crepitus indicates subcutaneous emphysema, which is a serious condition requiring monitoring. Applying a pressure dressing (Choice A) could worsen the condition by trapping air under the skin. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice B) is not indicated for crepitus. Assessing for allergies to cleaning agents (Choice C) is not the priority when dealing with crepitus and subcutaneous emphysema.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the medication immediately
- B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
- C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
- D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.
4. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Supine
- C. Prone
- D. Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.
5. A client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reorient the client to time and place.
- B. Monitor the client’s vital signs.
- C. Provide the client with calming activities to reduce confusion.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about adjusting the client’s medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused is to monitor the client’s vital signs (Choice B). Increased confusion in Alzheimer’s disease patients may indicate underlying issues like infection, dehydration, or medication side effects. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any potential causes of the confusion. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. Reorienting the client to time and place (Choice A) can be helpful but is not the first priority. Providing calming activities (Choice C) and consulting with the healthcare provider about medication adjustments (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after assessing the client's vital signs to rule out immediate physical causes of confusion.
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