Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage oral hydration
• B. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• C. Restrict fluid intake
• D. Administer IV fluids as prescribed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive ADH secretion leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The most crucial intervention is to restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload and worsening of hyponatremia. Encouraging oral hydration (choice A) would exacerbate the condition by adding more fluids. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice B) is not appropriate as the client is at risk of fluid overload. Administering IV fluids (choice D) would worsen the hyponatremia and should be avoided.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid frequent urination at night.
• B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• C. Avoid potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges.
• D. Monitor the client’s potassium levels weekly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, so adequate fluid intake is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is typically taken in the morning to avoid nighttime urination. Choice C is incorrect as potassium-rich foods should not be avoided but monitored, as hydrochlorothiazide can cause potassium loss. Choice D is incorrect as potassium levels should be monitored regularly, but not necessarily weekly, unless indicated by the healthcare provider.

3. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
• B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
• C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
• D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

5. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure presents with shortness of breath and pink frothy sputum. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally.
• B. Heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm.
• C. Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
• D. Elevated blood pressure and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate. Pink frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Increased respiratory rate is also concerning as it indicates the body's effort to compensate for the decreased oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not the most critical findings in this situation. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally may indicate a pneumothorax or atelectasis, heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm can be managed with medications and further assessment, and elevated blood pressure with shortness of breath is not as urgent as pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.

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