Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.

2. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who is receiving chemotherapy and is showing manifestations of malnutrition. Which of the following indicates a Vitamin C deficiency?

• A. Dry, red conjunctiva
• B. Swollen, bleeding gums
• C. Inflammation of the tongue
• D. Pale, brittle nails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen, bleeding gums are a classic sign of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C. Dry, red conjunctiva, inflammation of the tongue, and pale, brittle nails are not specific manifestations of Vitamin C deficiency, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client with heart failure has Lanoxin (digoxin) ordered. What would the nurse expect to find when evaluating for the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug?

• A. diaphoresis with decreased urinary output
• B. increased heart rate with increased respirations
• C. improved respiratory status and increased urinary output
• D. decreased chest pain and decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in a client with heart failure, the nurse should expect to find improved respiratory status and increased urinary output. Digoxin helps improve cardiac output and reduces fluid accumulation, leading to improved breathing and increased urinary output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diaphoresis with decreased urinary output, increased heart rate with increased respirations, and decreased chest pain with decreased blood pressure are not indicative of the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure management.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foods that enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Tomato juice
• B. Tea
• C. Milk
• D. Dried beans

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Tomato juice. Tomato juice is high in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of nonheme iron from foods. Vitamin C helps convert nonheme iron to a form that is easier for the body to absorb. Tea (choice B) contains tannins that can inhibit iron absorption. Milk (choice C) contains calcium, which can interfere with iron absorption. Dried beans (choice D) are a good source of nonheme iron but do not enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron.

5. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
• C. Diffuse macular rash
• D. Muscle tenderness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.

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