Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
• D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.

2. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
• D. Client is unable to speak

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

3. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Slow the rate of infusion
• C. Take vital signs and observe for further deterioration
• D. Administer Benadryl and continue the infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.

5. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via NG tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Mechanical soft diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.

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