Nursing Elites

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

3. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Inspect the PICC insertion site for signs of infection.
• B. Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds for signs of respiratory distress.
• D. Check for signs of phlebitis or thrombosis along the catheter site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Observing the antecubital fossa for inflammation is crucial in clients with a PICC line and fever. Inflammation at the site can indicate infection or complications related to the PICC line. Auscultating lung sounds (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Checking for phlebitis or thrombosis (choice D) is relevant but does not address the immediate concern of identifying infection or complications at the insertion site. Inspecting the PICC insertion site (choice A) is also important but observing the antecubital fossa provides a more direct assessment of potential issues with the PICC line.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with fluid overload. The most reliable indicator of fluid volume status is

• A. Body weight
• B. Intake and output
• C. Daily weight
• D. Skin turgor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid volume status as it reflects changes in body fluid balance accurately. Body weight alone can fluctuate due to various factors, including food intake and bowel movements, which may not accurately represent fluid status. Intake and output provide information on fluid balance over time but may not reflect immediate changes. Skin turgor is a physical assessment finding that indicates hydration status, not overall fluid volume status.

5. After repositioning an immobile client, the nurse observes an area of hyperemia. What action should the nurse take to assess for blanching?

• A. Document the presence in the client’s record.
• B. Apply light pressure over the area.
• C. Apply heat to the area and reassess in 30 minutes.
• D. Apply cold compresses to reduce the redness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to assess for blanching in an area of hyperemia is to apply light pressure over the area. Blanching is the temporary whitening of the skin when pressure is applied and then released, indicating that the blood flow is returning to the area. Applying light pressure helps in determining if the hyperemic area blanches, ensuring that blood flow is adequate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because documenting findings, applying heat, or using cold compresses are not appropriate actions for assessing blanching in an area of hyperemia.

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