HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.
2. A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to
- A. Take the medication with food or milk
- B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
- C. Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes
- D. Expect a yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.
3. A client with cirrhosis and ascites asks about fluid restriction. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Increase the client's fluid intake gradually.
- B. Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.
- C. Explain the importance of following a low-sodium diet.
- D. Increase dietary protein to reduce fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.' In clients with cirrhosis and ascites, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen symptoms of liver failure. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake would exacerbate the issue of fluid overload. Option C, while important, is not the best initial response to the client's question about fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as increasing dietary protein does not directly address fluid restriction in clients with cirrhosis and ascites.
4. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
- C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
- D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.
5. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?
- A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
- B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
- C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
- D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.
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