Nursing Elites

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A client is admitted with pneumonia and is started on antibiotics. After 3 days, the client reports difficulty breathing and a rash. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
• D. Call the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's difficulty breathing and rash suggest a possible allergic reaction to the antibiotic. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the antibiotic to prevent further exposure. Administering epinephrine should only be done in severe cases of anaphylaxis, which is not indicated solely by difficulty breathing and rash. While assessing the client's oxygen saturation is important, discontinuing the potential allergen takes precedence. Contacting the healthcare provider should be done after discontinuing the antibiotic and assessing the client to report the situation and seek further guidance.

3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

4. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take iron supplements with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take iron supplements with milk to improve absorption.
• C. Expect black, tarry stools as a side effect of iron supplements.
• D. Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

5. While palpating the gallbladder of a mildly obese client, what finding does the nurse expect if the gallbladder is inflamed?

• A. Severe tenderness and guarding
• B. Slight discomfort upon palpation
• C. A sensation of fullness
• D. No symptoms unless the gallbladder is extremely inflamed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. If the gallbladder is inflamed, the nurse would expect to find severe tenderness and guarding, which are typical signs of acute cholecystitis. This indicates an inflammatory process in the gallbladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because slight discomfort, a sensation of fullness, or no symptoms unless extremely inflamed are not typical findings associated with gallbladder inflammation.

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