a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin what lab result should the nurse review prior to administering the medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.

3. A client with severe dehydration is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the client's hydration status is improving. This reflects adequate fluid replacement and improved kidney function. Choice A is subjective and may not always indicate improved hydration. Choice C, while a positive sign, may be influenced by other factors such as medications or pain. Choice D, skin turgor returning to normal, is a delayed indicator of hydration status and may take time to improve even after hydration is initiated.

4. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.

5. A 30-year-old male client reports difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery. What intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to suggest to a 30-year-old male client experiencing difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery is to recommend taking a mild sedative before bed. A mild sedative can help manage anxiety and improve sleep in such situations. Encouraging physical activity before bedtime, advising to listen to calming music, or recommending reading a book may not directly address the client's anxiety and may not be as effective in promoting sleep in this scenario.

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