Nursing Elites

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A 4-year-old child is returned to the room following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Coughing
• C. Slow breathing
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient, frequent swallowing is a crucial assessment that requires immediate attention by the nurse. Frequent swallowing can indicate bleeding, a complication that needs urgent intervention. Coughing may be expected due to irritation from the surgery but is not as concerning as potential bleeding. Slow breathing and tachycardia are not typically immediate concerns following this type of surgery.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

4. A client with pancreatitis reports severe pain after eating fatty foods. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to eat small, low-fat meals.
• B. Administer antispasmodic medication as prescribed.
• C. Instruct the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides.
• D. Increase the client’s intake of high-protein foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pancreatitis, pain after consuming fatty foods is common due to increased pancreatic stimulation. Administering antispasmodics is the appropriate intervention as it can help reduce the pain by decreasing pancreatic enzyme secretion. Encouraging the client to eat small, low-fat meals (Choice A) is beneficial in managing pancreatitis symptoms but does not directly address the acute pain. Instructing the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides (Choice C) may lead to nutritional deficiencies and is not the best approach. Increasing high-protein foods intake (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the pancreas.

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

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