a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin what lab result should the nurse review prior to administering the medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for a male client with schizophrenia who is diaphoretic and pacing the hallway is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. Diaphoresis and pacing can be indicators of agitation or distress in clients with schizophrenia. Careful observation is crucial to monitor the client's safety, assess for any potential escalation of symptoms, and provide timely intervention if needed. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for safety and observation. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) may not be effective if the client is agitated. Planning an activity involving physical exercise (Choice C) could potentially exacerbate the situation rather than addressing the immediate need for observation and safety.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.

4. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.

5. A client with dysphagia is having difficulty swallowing medications. What is the nurse's best intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dysphagia experiencing difficulty swallowing medications is to consult with the healthcare provider about switching to liquid medications. Liquid medications are often easier to swallow and can reduce the risk of choking and aspiration in clients with dysphagia. Crushing medications can alter their effectiveness, encouraging the client to drink water may not be sufficient, and offering soft foods is not directly related to improving medication swallowing.

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