a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin what lab result should the nurse review prior to administering the medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.

3. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

4. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

5. The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The UAP can be tasked with reporting complaints, monitoring weight gain, and tracking food and fluid intake, all of which are important in managing a client with Cushing's syndrome. These tasks fall within the UAP's scope of practice. Reporting client complaints helps in early identification of complications, monitoring weight is crucial due to fluid retention in Cushing's syndrome, and tracking food and fluid intake assists in dietary management. Choices A, B, and C are all necessary components of care for a client with Cushing's syndrome, making option D the correct answer.

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