HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.
2. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.
3. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?
- A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
- B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
- C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
- D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.
4. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests
- B. Assign the nurse requested by the client to avoid further conflict
- C. Tell the client that he can request a different nurse if unhappy
- D. Explain the situation calmly and reinforce the rules regarding nurse assignments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.
5. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted for total thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority post-operative intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia.
- B. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
- C. Administer oral calcium supplements.
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia. After a total thyroidectomy, there is a risk of accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. This complication can manifest within the first 24-48 hours post-op. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications such as tetany or seizures. While monitoring for respiratory distress is important, it is not the priority in this case. Administering oral calcium supplements should only be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription and after assessing the client's calcium levels. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for respiratory function but is not the priority intervention for a client at risk for hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy.
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