a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin what lab result should the nurse review prior to administering the medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe anemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign in severe anemia as it indicates inadequate oxygenation, which can be life-threatening. Immediate intervention is necessary to address this condition. Pale skin (choice A) is a common finding in anemia but not as urgent as shortness of breath. Increased heart rate (choice B) is a compensatory mechanism in anemia to maintain oxygen delivery and is important but not as urgent as addressing inadequate oxygenation. Fatigue (choice D) is a common symptom in anemia but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation like shortness of breath does.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

4. The nurse is providing teaching to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid lying down immediately after eating. This helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, which can worsen symptoms. Eating large meals can actually increase acid production and exacerbate GERD. Limiting fluid intake with meals may be beneficial for some individuals, but it is not a key instruction for managing GERD. Drinking carbonated beverages can trigger reflux symptoms and should be avoided by individuals with GERD.

5. A child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting an unknown quantity of acetaminophen. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining serum acetaminophen levels is critical in determining the level of toxicity and guiding treatment. It helps to assess the risk of hepatotoxicity and determine the need for antidotal therapy with N-acetylcysteine. Assessing the child's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but obtaining serum acetaminophen levels takes precedence as it directly guides the specific treatment required. Activated charcoal (Choice B) is not routinely used in acetaminophen poisoning. While notifying the poison control center (Choice C) is important, obtaining serum acetaminophen levels should be the immediate action to assess the child's condition and guide treatment.

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