HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with hypothyroidism is experiencing severe lethargy and cold intolerance. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the dose of levothyroxine.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of antipyretic medication.
- C. Provide a warm blanket and increase the room temperature.
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake to avoid dehydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of levothyroxine. In hypothyroidism, the body does not produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms like lethargy and cold intolerance. Increasing the dose of levothyroxine, which is a synthetic thyroid hormone replacement, helps correct the deficiency and alleviates the symptoms. Choice B, administering antipyretic medication, is incorrect as antipyretics are used to reduce fever, not treat hypothyroidism symptoms. Choice C, providing a warm blanket and increasing room temperature, may provide temporary comfort but does not address the underlying hormonal deficiency. Choice D, increasing fluid intake, is important for overall health but does not directly address the symptoms of hypothyroidism.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with confusion, sweating, and a blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Provide a carbohydrate snack
- C. Check the client's urine for ketones
- D. Start an insulin drip
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications if not treated immediately. The priority is to administer IV dextrose to rapidly increase the blood sugar level. Administering 50% dextrose IV push will provide a quick source of glucose to raise the blood sugar. Providing a carbohydrate snack is not the immediate priority in this critical situation. Checking the client's urine for ketones is important in diabetic ketoacidosis, not for hypoglycemia. Starting an insulin drip would further lower the blood sugar and worsen the client's condition.
3. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.
4. Before a client with renal failure undergoes hemodialysis, what should the nurse assess?
- A. Check the client's potassium levels
- B. Review the client's medication list
- C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses
- D. Monitor the client's urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's potassium levels. Potassium levels are crucial to assess before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure because hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in these patients. Hemodialysis aims to remove excess potassium from the blood, making it essential to monitor potassium levels to determine the need for appropriate interventions. Reviewing the client's medication list (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concerns before hemodialysis. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice C) and monitoring urine output (Choice D) are important aspects of nursing assessment but are not as directly related to the specific preparation needed before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure.
5. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.
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