Nursing Elites

1. While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client reports living at home alone and never falling. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Suggest moving to an assisted living facility
• B. Continue to obtain client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
• C. Reduce the frequency of fall risk assessments for this client
• D. Confirm that the client is safe living alone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. Even though the client reports never falling, it is essential to assess all fall risk factors comprehensively. Fall risk surveys provide valuable information on mobility, vision, medications, and other factors that can impact safety. Option A is incorrect because suggesting moving to an assisted living facility is premature without completing the fall risk assessment. Option C is incorrect as reducing the frequency of fall risk assessments could overlook potential risk factors. Option D is incorrect as the client's statement alone is not enough to confirm their safety living alone; a thorough assessment is necessary.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Coat the lining of the stomach
• B. Neutralize stomach acid
• C. Promote gastric motility
• D. Reduce gastric acid secretion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing the production of gastric acid in the stomach. This helps in managing GERD by decreasing the acidity levels in the stomach. Choice A is incorrect because omeprazole does not coat the lining of the stomach. Choice B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize stomach acid but rather reduces its production. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole does not promote gastric motility; instead, it acts on acid secretion.

3. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Describes life without purpose
• C. Exhibits mood swings
• D. Complains of insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.

4. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor gastrointestinal pain
• B. Ask the client about pain levels
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Assess for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.

5. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

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