Nursing Elites

1. What safety measure should the nurse take for a client with a seizure disorder who has an IV line?

• A. Ensure that the IV site is padded and protected.
• B. Limit the client's mobility to prevent dislodging the IV.
• C. Place the IV site on the same side as the seizure activity.
• D. Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line. Placing the IV line on the opposite side of any seizure activity is essential to prevent injury. It helps to ensure that the IV line is not dislodged during a seizure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While padding and protecting the IV site is important, the priority is to position the client on the side opposite to the IV line to prevent dislodgement and injury during a seizure.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

3. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

• A. Exercise doing weight-bearing activities
• B. Exercise to reduce weight
• C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
• D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in managing osteoporosis as they help strengthen bones. Choice A is the correct answer because weight-bearing activities, such as walking, dancing, or weight training, help stimulate bone formation and strengthen bones, which is essential in managing osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on the type of exercise rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding exercise altogether can lead to further bone density loss, and it is important to engage in safe weight-bearing activities. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of exercise in osteoporosis is to improve bone density through weight-bearing activities.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Ammonia level
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Albumin level
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain, polyuria, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin.
• B. Start an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• D. Administer an antiemetic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first start an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention is crucial in addressing severe dehydration associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes. Administering intravenous insulin (Choice A) is important but should follow fluid resuscitation. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice C) is necessary but not as urgent as addressing the dehydration. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation.

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