Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
• B. Monitor the client’s heart rate and report any bradycardia.
• C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
• D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

• A. Ensure early ambulation
• B. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• C. Maintain strict intake and output
• D. Monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

3. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

• A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
• B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
• C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
• D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

4. A teenager presents to the emergency department with palpitations after vaping at a party. The client is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse anticipate the client developing?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Metabolic acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation from anxiety or fear causes an excessive loss of CO2, leading to respiratory alkalosis. This shift in pH results from the rapid, shallow breathing that reduces the level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Respiratory acidosis would occur in cases of poor ventilation or CO2 retention, while metabolic acidosis/alkalosis relates to disturbances in bicarbonate, not breathing patterns. Therefore, in this case, the client's hyperventilation due to anxiety would likely result in respiratory alkalosis, making option B the correct choice.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

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