HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output hourly.
- B. Apply cool, moist dressings to the burned areas.
- C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
- D. Administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.
2. A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?
- A. Capillary glucose.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Urine specific gravity.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.
3. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s lung sounds bilaterally.
- B. Diminished left lower lobe sounds.
- C. Monitor ventilator settings for changes in oxygen levels.
- D. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.
4. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
- B. Take the medication only during asthma attacks.
- C. Avoid using the inhaler before exercise.
- D. Clean the inhaler with hot water after each use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral fungal infections, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because inhaled corticosteroids are usually used regularly, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as using the inhaler before exercise can actually help prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the inhaler with hot water after each use is not necessary and may damage the device.
5. Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?
- A. Avoid all protein-rich foods.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day.
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent weakness.
- D. Eat small, frequent meals high in carbohydrates.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important dietary instruction for a client with renal disease is to limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day. This is essential to prevent fluid overload, manage electrolyte balance, and reduce strain on the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because while protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, avoiding all protein-rich foods is not recommended as some protein intake is essential for overall health. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake is generally not advised for clients with renal disease, as they often need to limit potassium intake. Choice D is also incorrect because while consuming small, frequent meals may be helpful, emphasizing a diet high in carbohydrates is not typically the primary focus for clients with renal disease.
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