the healthcare provider prescribes an iv infusion of isoproterenol in d5w at 300 mcghour how many mlhour should the nurse set the pump to
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.

2. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring the level of consciousness helps assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in improving the client's condition. Monitoring ammonia levels (choice A) is important, but assessing the client's response to therapy through their level of consciousness is more crucial. Blood glucose levels (choice B) and potassium levels (choice C) are not directly related to lactulose therapy for cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a quick assessment of the client's condition when the high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. This assessment is crucial to determine the cause of the alarm and the client's current status. Option A is incorrect because disconnecting the client from the ventilator without assessing the situation can be harmful. Option C is incorrect as the nurse should first assess the client before seeking additional help. Option D is incorrect because resetting the alarm without understanding the underlying issue may lead to potential risks to the client.

4. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in managing osteoporosis as they help strengthen bones. Choice A is the correct answer because weight-bearing activities, such as walking, dancing, or weight training, help stimulate bone formation and strengthen bones, which is essential in managing osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on the type of exercise rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding exercise altogether can lead to further bone density loss, and it is important to engage in safe weight-bearing activities. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of exercise in osteoporosis is to improve bone density through weight-bearing activities.

5. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, a weight gain of 4.4 lbs in 24 hours, and an elevated central venous pressure for a client with full-thickness burns. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated CVP and sudden weight gain indicate fluid overload, which can strain the heart. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate is crucial as electrolyte imbalances and fluid shifts after burns can lead to cardiac complications. Monitoring the heart rate is a priority to detect any cardiac distress early. While reviewing urine output and administering diuretics are important interventions, they should come after ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable. Increasing oral fluid intake may exacerbate the fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.

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