Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?

• A. 100 ml/hour
• B. 75 ml/hour
• C. 60 ml/hour
• D. 125 ml/hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Client reports dizziness
• B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
• C. Client experiences mild nausea
• D. Client reports dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

3. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?

• A. The client has been taking multiple medications
• B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
• C. The client's vital signs are stable
• D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.

4. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

• A. 3 ml.
• B. 0.4 ml.
• C. 1.2 ml.
• D. 0.9 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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