a client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is npo which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being npo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.

3. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit indicates that the infection is not under control despite antibiotic therapy. Fever is a common sign of ongoing infection or inadequate response to treatment. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically indicative of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating infective endocarditis.

4. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has just been prescribed methotrexate. What teaching should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sunscreen to prevent photosensitivity.' Methotrexate increases photosensitivity, so clients should be advised to use sunscreen to protect their skin from sun exposure. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B may be important but is not specific to methotrexate therapy. Choice C is also important, but the primary reason for folic acid supplementation with methotrexate is to reduce the risk of certain side effects like anemia rather than preventing anemia itself.

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