Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.

2. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.

3. A client with hypertension is being educated on lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which recommendation is the most important to reduce blood pressure?

• A. Increase water intake
• B. Avoid alcohol consumption
• C. Exercise regularly
• D. Reduce sodium intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing hypertension as high sodium levels can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. While increasing water intake is beneficial for overall health, reducing sodium has a more significant impact on blood pressure. Regular exercise is important for cardiovascular health but does not have as direct an impact on blood pressure as sodium reduction. Avoiding alcohol is also important, but in terms of managing blood pressure, reducing sodium intake takes precedence.

4. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe, piercing abdominal pain and an elevated serum amylase. Which additional information is the client most likely to report to the nurse?

• A. Pain radiates to the back
• B. Nausea and vomiting without relief
• C. Abdominal pain decreases when lying supine
• D. Abdominal pain is worse after eating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In acute pancreatitis, abdominal pain typically worsens after eating due to the stimulation of the pancreas to release enzymes that irritate the inflamed tissues. Pain relief when lying supine is uncommon and usually exacerbates discomfort. While nausea and vomiting are common symptoms, they are not as indicative of changes in pain intensity. Pain radiating to the back is characteristic but does not specifically relate to exacerbation post-eating.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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