a client with deep vein thrombosis dvt is prescribed heparin what lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

2. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

3. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

4. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.

5. A client asks the nurse for information about reducing risk factors for BPH. Which information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase physical activity. Physical activity can help reduce the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by improving overall circulation and reducing inflammation. While decreasing alcohol consumption and avoiding caffeine and spicy foods may help with symptom management, increasing physical activity is more strongly linked to the prevention of BPH.

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