Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic liver disease develops jaundice. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?

• A. Assess the client’s skin for lesions or sores.
• B. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• C. Assess for changes in mental status and behavior.
• D. Monitor the client’s urine output closely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease developing jaundice, the most important assessment the nurse should perform is to monitor the client’s urine output closely. Jaundice can indicate worsening liver function, so monitoring urine output helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, which are critical in chronic liver disease. Assessing the client’s skin for lesions or sores (Choice A) may be relevant for dermatological conditions but is not the priority in this case. Monitoring liver function tests (Choice B) is important but may not provide immediate information on the client’s current status. Assessing for changes in mental status and behavior (Choice C) is important for detecting hepatic encephalopathy but does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid balance and kidney function in the presence of jaundice.

2. A client is admitted with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Bright red blood in the vomit.
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate.
• C. Coffee ground emesis.
• D. Dark, tarry stools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract, signifying a higher gastrointestinal bleed. This finding requires immediate intervention due to the potential severity of the bleed. Bright red blood in the vomit may indicate active bleeding but is not as concerning as digested blood. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate are common responses to bleeding but do not provide direct evidence of the source or severity of the bleed. Coffee ground emesis is indicative of partially digested blood and is a concern but not as urgent as dark, tarry stools.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with dairy products.
• D. Continue taking the medication even if symptoms improve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause crystalluria, so increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day helps flush out the medication and prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. This also ensures adequate hydration, which supports the body's ability to fight the infection. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because although it's important to complete the full course of antibiotics, it's equally crucial to report any improvement in symptoms to the healthcare provider.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a recent MI?

• A. Elevated troponin levels
• B. Increased white blood cell count
• C. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
• D. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels increase within hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days. White blood cell count, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are not specific markers for MI. An increased white blood cell count may indicate inflammation or infection, increased LDH levels can be seen in various conditions like liver disease or muscle injury, and elevated CRP is a general marker of inflammation rather than specific to MI.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted for total thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority post-operative intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia.
• B. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
• C. Administer oral calcium supplements.
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia. After a total thyroidectomy, there is a risk of accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. This complication can manifest within the first 24-48 hours post-op. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications such as tetany or seizures. While monitoring for respiratory distress is important, it is not the priority in this case. Administering oral calcium supplements should only be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription and after assessing the client's calcium levels. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for respiratory function but is not the priority intervention for a client at risk for hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy.

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