Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

• A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
• C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

2. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

4. The nurse has been teaching a client with congestive heart failure about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?

• A. Cheese sandwich with a glass of 2% milk
• B. Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple
• C. Cheeseburger and baked potato
• D. Mushroom pizza and ice cream

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple are good choices for a client with congestive heart failure who is learning about sodium restriction. Turkey is generally lower in sodium compared to cheese, and canned fruits like pineapple typically have lower sodium content. Choices A, C, and D are less suitable as they contain higher levels of sodium, such as cheese, cheeseburger, baked potato, mushroom pizza, and ice cream, which are not ideal for a client needing to restrict sodium intake.

5. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Leave the pillows in place and document the action
• B. Inform the UAP that the pillows should be removed immediately
• C. Request that the pillows be replaced with firm padding
• D. Ensure that the side rails are padded and leave the pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the UAP that the pillows should be removed immediately. Soft pillows along the side rails do not provide sufficient protection during a seizure. The pillows could potentially increase the risk of injury, such as hitting the head or limbs against the hard side rails. Requesting firm padding or ensuring that the side rails are padded are not as effective as removing the pillows to prevent harm to the client. Leaving the pillows in place without addressing the potential risks would not be in the best interest of the client's safety.

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