Nursing Elites

1. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?

• A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
• D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.

2. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with asthma. The primary purpose of the plan is to

• A. Prevent respiratory infections
• B. Prevent airway inflammation
• C. Maintain an open airway
• D. Avoid allergens that trigger attacks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Avoiding allergens that trigger asthma attacks is crucial in managing the condition and preventing exacerbations. While preventing respiratory infections and maintaining an open airway are important aspects of asthma management, the primary focus of the teaching plan is to help the client identify and avoid allergens that could trigger asthma attacks. This proactive approach can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

4. A client with severe dehydration is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. The client reports feeling less thirsty
• B. Urine output increases to 40 mL/hour
• C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
• D. Skin turgor returns to normal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the client's hydration status is improving. This reflects adequate fluid replacement and improved kidney function. Choice A is subjective and may not always indicate improved hydration. Choice C, while a positive sign, may be influenced by other factors such as medications or pain. Choice D, skin turgor returning to normal, is a delayed indicator of hydration status and may take time to improve even after hydration is initiated.

5. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take iron supplements with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take iron supplements with milk to improve absorption.
• C. Expect black, tarry stools as a side effect of iron supplements.
• D. Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

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