Nursing Elites

1. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?

• A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
• D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.

2. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Client reports dizziness
• B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
• C. Client experiences mild nausea
• D. Client reports dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. White blood cell count of 15,000.
• B. Blood glucose level of 320 mg/dL.
• C. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L.
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 320 mg/dL indicates the need for insulin to manage diabetic ketoacidosis.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulants. What should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising.
• B. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
• C. Monitor for pain in the affected limb.
• D. Assess for signs of pulmonary embolism, such as sudden shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with DVT, assessing for pulmonary embolism is crucial as a clot in the lungs can be life-threatening. Sudden shortness of breath or chest pain are key signs of a pulmonary embolism. While monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to anticoagulant therapy, the immediate concern is detecting a potential pulmonary embolism. Monitoring vital signs and pain in the affected limb are relevant aspects of care but are not as urgent as assessing for pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

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