HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?
- A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
- D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
- C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
- D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.
3. A client with emphysema reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy.
- B. Assess the client’s respiratory rate and effort.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with emphysema may indicate respiratory distress. Assessing the client’s respiratory rate and effort is the first priority to determine the severity of the distress and guide appropriate interventions. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice A) could be necessary, but assessing the client first is crucial to tailor the intervention. Intubation (Choice C) is an invasive procedure that is not the initial priority. Increasing oxygen flow rate (Choice D) should only be done after a thorough assessment to avoid potential harm.
4. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
- B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
- C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
- D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage oral hydration
- B. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- C. Restrict fluid intake
- D. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive ADH secretion leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The most crucial intervention is to restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload and worsening of hyponatremia. Encouraging oral hydration (choice A) would exacerbate the condition by adding more fluids. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice B) is not appropriate as the client is at risk of fluid overload. Administering IV fluids (choice D) would worsen the hyponatremia and should be avoided.
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