Nursing Elites

1. An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and observes dark amber urine output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Begin dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
• B. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour.
• C. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes.
• D. Administer promethazine 25 mg IV push.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes. The client's dark amber urine output indicates dehydration and hypovolemia, requiring rapid fluid resuscitation. Dopamine infusion, potassium chloride, and promethazine are not the initial interventions needed for a client with hypovolemic symptoms.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Ammonia level
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Albumin level
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

4. A child has a nosebleed (epistaxis) while playing soccer. In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Position the child lying flat and apply pressure to the bridge of the nose.
• B. Position the child sitting up and leaning forward.
• C. Have the child tilt the head back and pinch the nose.
• D. Position the child lying on their side and apply ice to the nose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to position the child sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of choking or vomiting. Choice A is incorrect because lying flat can cause blood to flow down the throat. Choice C is wrong as tilting the head back may lead to blood entering the throat. Choice D is also incorrect as applying ice is not recommended for nosebleeds and lying on the side may not prevent blood from flowing down the throat.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

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