the home care nurse visits a client who has cancer the client reports having a good appetite but experiencing nausea when smelling food cooking which
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. The home care nurse visits a client who has cancer. The client reports having a good appetite but experiencing nausea when smelling food cooking. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In some cases, the smell of food cooking can trigger nausea in cancer patients. Cooking food outside reduces the intensity of odors that could trigger nausea, helping the client maintain adequate nutrition. Providing anti-nausea medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the nausea triggered by the smell of cooking food. Suggesting cold water (Choice C) or smaller, frequent meals (Choice D) may not directly address the issue of cooking odors triggering nausea, which is specific to this client's situation.

2. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

4. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is deteriorating?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a sign of worsening septic shock. Hypotension can lead to organ failure and requires immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice A), mild fever (choice B), and slightly increased respiratory rate (choice D) are common in septic shock and may not necessarily indicate a deteriorating condition as much as hypotension does.

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