the home care nurse visits a client who has cancer the client reports having a good appetite but experiencing nausea when smelling food cooking which
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. The home care nurse visits a client who has cancer. The client reports having a good appetite but experiencing nausea when smelling food cooking. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In some cases, the smell of food cooking can trigger nausea in cancer patients. Cooking food outside reduces the intensity of odors that could trigger nausea, helping the client maintain adequate nutrition. Providing anti-nausea medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the nausea triggered by the smell of cooking food. Suggesting cold water (Choice C) or smaller, frequent meals (Choice D) may not directly address the issue of cooking odors triggering nausea, which is specific to this client's situation.

2. What instruction should the nurse include for a client prescribed nitroglycerin for a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.' This instruction is crucial to prevent excessive use, which can lead to severe hypotension and other complications. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should also be used preventatively, not only during severe chest pain. Choice B is irrelevant and not a necessary instruction for nitroglycerin use. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin is typically taken to prevent chest pain rather than waiting for an activity that may trigger it.

3. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a recent MI?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels increase within hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days. White blood cell count, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are not specific markers for MI. An increased white blood cell count may indicate inflammation or infection, increased LDH levels can be seen in various conditions like liver disease or muscle injury, and elevated CRP is a general marker of inflammation rather than specific to MI.

5. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.

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