Nursing Elites

1. The home care nurse visits a client who has cancer. The client reports having a good appetite but experiencing nausea when smelling food cooking. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside
• B. Provide anti-nausea medication prior to meals
• C. Suggest drinking cold water with meals to reduce nausea
• D. Recommend smaller, frequent meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In some cases, the smell of food cooking can trigger nausea in cancer patients. Cooking food outside reduces the intensity of odors that could trigger nausea, helping the client maintain adequate nutrition. Providing anti-nausea medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the nausea triggered by the smell of cooking food. Suggesting cold water (Choice C) or smaller, frequent meals (Choice D) may not directly address the issue of cooking odors triggering nausea, which is specific to this client's situation.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
• B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
• C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
• D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours.
• B. Monitor for signs of infection.
• C. Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
• D. Check the client's temperature every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.

5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a fever. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an antipyretic as prescribed.
• B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
• D. Continue the transfusion and reassess in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial to prevent further reactions and ensure prompt intervention. Administering an antipyretic (Choice A) may mask symptoms and delay appropriate treatment. Slowing the rate of the transfusion (Choice C) might not address the underlying cause of the fever. Continuing the transfusion and reassessing in 15 minutes (Choice D) could worsen the client's condition if there is a severe reaction occurring.

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