Nursing Elites

1. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?

• A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
• B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
• C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
• D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.

2. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
• B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
• D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

3. Which foods should a healthcare provider recommend for a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to avoid?

• A. Fresh fruit and vegetables
• B. Foods sweetened with aspartame
• C. Bread with honey
• D. Gluten-rich bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Foods sweetened with aspartame.' Children with PKU must avoid foods containing aspartame because it breaks down into phenylalanine, which can worsen their condition. Choice A, fresh fruit and vegetables, are generally healthy and safe for individuals with PKU. Choice C, bread with honey, is also safe unless the bread contains artificial sweeteners like aspartame. Choice D, gluten-rich bread, is not specifically problematic for individuals with PKU unless it contains aspartame or other substances high in phenylalanine.

4. A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?

• A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
• B. Encourage the client to rest.
• C. Plan an activity involving physical exercise.
• D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for a male client with schizophrenia who is diaphoretic and pacing the hallway is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. Diaphoresis and pacing can be indicators of agitation or distress in clients with schizophrenia. Careful observation is crucial to monitor the client's safety, assess for any potential escalation of symptoms, and provide timely intervention if needed. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for safety and observation. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) may not be effective if the client is agitated. Planning an activity involving physical exercise (Choice C) could potentially exacerbate the situation rather than addressing the immediate need for observation and safety.

5. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

Similar Questions