Nursing Elites

1. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?

• A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
• B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
• C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
• D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.

2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports feeling chilled and short of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• C. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving a blood transfusion reports feeling chilled and short of breath is to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms could indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious and even life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further adverse reactions, and notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management. Administering antihistamines, acetaminophen, or diphenhydramine is not the priority in this situation and may delay necessary actions to address the potential transfusion reaction.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

• A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
• B. Upper outer thigh.
• C. Lower abdomen.
• D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.

4. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.

5. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Cancel the surgery
• B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
• D. Proceed with routine preparations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.

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