Nursing Elites

1. A child has a nosebleed (epistaxis) while playing soccer. In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Position the child lying flat and apply pressure to the bridge of the nose.
• B. Position the child sitting up and leaning forward.
• C. Have the child tilt the head back and pinch the nose.
• D. Position the child lying on their side and apply ice to the nose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to position the child sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of choking or vomiting. Choice A is incorrect because lying flat can cause blood to flow down the throat. Choice C is wrong as tilting the head back may lead to blood entering the throat. Choice D is also incorrect as applying ice is not recommended for nosebleeds and lying on the side may not prevent blood from flowing down the throat.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a recent MI?

• A. Elevated troponin levels
• B. Increased white blood cell count
• C. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
• D. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels increase within hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days. White blood cell count, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are not specific markers for MI. An increased white blood cell count may indicate inflammation or infection, increased LDH levels can be seen in various conditions like liver disease or muscle injury, and elevated CRP is a general marker of inflammation rather than specific to MI.

4. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
• B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
• C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.

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