the nurse is caring for a 69 year old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive person
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. The nurse is caring for a 69-year-old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia. Which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because measuring urine output is a task that falls within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require clinical decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because testing blood sugar using Accu-Chek involves interpreting results and possible adjustments, which require a licensed healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as discussing signs of hyperglycemia involves education and interpretation that should be done by a nurse. Choice C is incorrect since administering insulin is a high-risk task that necessitates precise dosing and monitoring, thus should not be delegated to UAP.

2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

3. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.

4. A client presents to the emergency room with an acute asthma attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as prescribed. During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways quickly to help the client breathe more easily. Oxygen may be needed but bronchodilators take precedence as they directly target bronchoconstriction. Chest physiotherapy is not indicated in the acute phase of asthma and may exacerbate the condition. While emotional support is important, addressing the airway obstruction takes precedence in this situation.

5. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

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