HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with heart failure. Which medication should the nurse question?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Digoxin
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Carvedilol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause fluid retention, which may worsen heart failure symptoms. It should be used with caution or avoided in clients with heart failure. Furosemide (choice A) is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Digoxin (choice B) is a medication that helps the heart beat stronger and slower, often used in heart failure. Carvedilol (choice D) is a beta-blocker that is beneficial in heart failure management. Therefore, Ibuprofen is the medication that the nurse should question in this scenario.
2. A young woman with multiple sclerosis just received several immunizations in preparation for moving into a college dormitory. Two days later, she reports to the nurse that she is experiencing increasing fatigue and visual problems. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Immunizations can trigger a relapse of the disease, so get plenty of extra rest
- B. Visual problems are unrelated to the recent immunizations
- C. Increase fluid intake to reduce symptoms of fatigue
- D. Consult the healthcare provider immediately for steroid therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Immunizations can sometimes trigger relapses in multiple sclerosis due to the activation of the immune system. Extra rest can help manage these symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because visual problems can be associated with the immune response triggered by immunizations in individuals with multiple sclerosis. While increasing fluid intake is generally good advice, in this case, the nurse should focus on explaining the possible connection between the immunizations and the symptoms experienced. Choice D is not the immediate course of action; educating the patient on the potential link between immunizations and symptom exacerbation is more appropriate at this stage.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement
- B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
- C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.
4. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
- A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
- B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
- C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.
5. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
- B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
- C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
- D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.
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