the nurse is completing the admission assessment of a 3 year old who is admitted with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus which assessment finding
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. During the admission assessment of a 3-year-old with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus, which assessment finding is evidence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. This finding suggests that the optic nerve is being compressed due to increased ICP, causing a delay in pupillary reactions. Such a delay is a critical sign of worsening ICP and necessitates immediate intervention. Low blood pressure and increased respiratory rate can occur in various conditions but are less specific to increased ICP than sluggish and unequal pupillary responses, which directly reflect neurological compromise.

2. An 11-year-old client admitted to the mental health unit after threatening self-harm. What is the best activity to establish rapport and promote coping?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Playing a board game with the client is an effective way to establish rapport in a relaxed setting, allowing the client to open up about stressors. This activity promotes coping by creating a safe and engaging environment for the client to express their feelings. Choices A, C, and D may not be suitable initially as they involve more formal or intrusive approaches that may not be suitable for building rapport with a client experiencing emotional distress.

3. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

4. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.

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